Hi, Rafy --
If § 119 has any truth to it, or even if § 273 has any truth to it, how many strains you can practically use depends first on whether you would like to be able to rely on the preparation's pathogenesis or not. If you have any intention of using it on the basis of symptom similarity, then one is the limit.
Even the allopathic pharamaceutical industry recognises the uniqueness of each Influenza virus, albeit that it measures response antibodily. See, for instance, the very readable article at
http://www.theoneclickgroup.co.uk/news. ... 7#newspost.
If we lose sight of the basis of homoeoprophylaxis in reproducible symptom similarity, we risk falling into mere superstition, based on hearsay, supported by magical thinking, proven by the resonance of result with intention -- which already constitutes all that some "practitioners" know of homoeopathy.
The practice of homoeopathy of any stripe necessitates the use of reliable pathogenetic sources. The first scientific investigation of reliable pathogenetic sources is what revealed the curativeness of the homoeopathic relationship, and it is what reveals that which is curative in each and every medicine. Without it, we can only practise allopathy in sheep's clothing.
Cheers!
John
2009/8/11 HomeoDidact >
How many strains of INFLUENZINUM can be put in one mixture?
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John Harvey
- Posts: 1331
- Joined: Wed Oct 18, 2006 10:00 pm
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John Harvey
- Posts: 1331
- Joined: Wed Oct 18, 2006 10:00 pm
Re: How many strains of INFLUENZINUM can be put in one mixture?
Hi, Lynn --
Yes, this is the only basis I understand we have for a homoeopathic prescription either for treatment or for prevention: pathogenesis and its similarity to the symptoms of the illness under consideration.
This statement concerns me. Is this related to Rafy's question? It seems to be suggesting that when it comes to prophylaxis, symptom similarity is no longer the basis of homoeoapathy, but breadth of viral sources.
If that is your contention, can you support it?
Thanks --
John
Yes, this is the only basis I understand we have for a homoeopathic prescription either for treatment or for prevention: pathogenesis and its similarity to the symptoms of the illness under consideration.
This statement concerns me. Is this related to Rafy's question? It seems to be suggesting that when it comes to prophylaxis, symptom similarity is no longer the basis of homoeoapathy, but breadth of viral sources.
If that is your contention, can you support it?
Thanks --
John
-
John Harvey
- Posts: 1331
- Joined: Wed Oct 18, 2006 10:00 pm

