And is Arnica such a bad thing when the patient is going to bathed 
in chemicals and anesthetic gases and injections - come on folks- 
get a grip, is all of this OK and Arnica is not? 
Why should we  think in epidemics prophylaxis could be allowed even 
without symptoms? What is the basic assumption - or is it basic 
delusion- I know of the collective anamnesis and collective symptoms 
and all the jazz... 
Remedies like Arnica have been used before symptom similarity and 
Hahnemann... and lot of them were used BEFORE any such condition 
occurred for which they were indicated as a preventive... Garlic for 
example in many cases was used as a general preventive of bronchitis 
and TB and is also curative when the conditions occurred... many 
cultures have used it so... well of course people would boil my head 
for this is a non-homeopathic use...
We all have cases where we give many medicines for the patient 
before arriving at the remedy... sometimes we never arrive at the 
simillimum - are we not spoiling the cases then? what would Arnica 
do  to spoil a case that all of this does not?
And we have had cases where Arnica was useful as a PROPHYLACTIC... 
as you say Arnica 30 was used in proving and so who knows the 
patient is already proving it or whatever and when the insult or 
injury occurs some therapeutic protective effect was already in the 
making... some of these are only from experience of people and not 
necessarily thru proving - and for now there is sufficient anecdotal 
evidence to not look down upon such practice...
--- In 
minutus@yahoogroups.com, Joy Lucas  wrote:
so if 
a 
in 
what 
guess is 
mixing it 
wearing a
prostitutes-
Arnica