And is Arnica such a bad thing when the patient is going to bathed
in chemicals and anesthetic gases and injections - come on folks-
get a grip, is all of this OK and Arnica is not?
Why should we think in epidemics prophylaxis could be allowed even
without symptoms? What is the basic assumption - or is it basic
delusion- I know of the collective anamnesis and collective symptoms
and all the jazz...
Remedies like Arnica have been used before symptom similarity and
Hahnemann... and lot of them were used BEFORE any such condition
occurred for which they were indicated as a preventive... Garlic for
example in many cases was used as a general preventive of bronchitis
and TB and is also curative when the conditions occurred... many
cultures have used it so... well of course people would boil my head
for this is a non-homeopathic use...
We all have cases where we give many medicines for the patient
before arriving at the remedy... sometimes we never arrive at the
simillimum - are we not spoiling the cases then? what would Arnica
do to spoil a case that all of this does not?
And we have had cases where Arnica was useful as a PROPHYLACTIC...
as you say Arnica 30 was used in proving and so who knows the
patient is already proving it or whatever and when the insult or
injury occurs some therapeutic protective effect was already in the
making... some of these are only from experience of people and not
necessarily thru proving - and for now there is sufficient anecdotal
evidence to not look down upon such practice...
--- In
minutus@yahoogroups.com, Joy Lucas wrote:
so if
a
in
what
guess is
mixing it
wearing a
prostitutes-
Arnica