This is a second question, and a second challenge, for the practitioners amongst us who, having made known their practice as homoeopathic, send a consulting patient away with a prescription for a combination medicine that the patient could have obtained (or could obtain an equivalent substitute for) from a pharmacy without paying for any consultation.
Please redistribute this message widely amongst your polypharmaceutical-prescribing friends, and ask them to reply on this forum.
The question is this:
What criterion do you use for determining whether the process in which a consultation leads to prescription is homoeopathic; what criterion did Hahnemann state; and if yours differs from his, why does it?
Kind regards,
John Harvey
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"Because we're supposed to have an open government—a democracy—everything the Government does is presumptively public, and can be legitimately concealed only with compelling justifications. That's not just some lofty, abstract theory; it's central to having anything resembling 'consent of the governed'."
—Glenn Greenwald, "The moral standards of WikiLeaks critics", Salon.com 1 Dec 2010, .
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"Because we're supposed to have an open government—a democracy—everything the Government does is presumptively public, and can be legitimately concealed only with compelling justifications. That's not just some lofty, abstract theory; it's central to having anything resembling 'consent of the governed'."
—Glenn Greenwald, "The moral standards of WikiLeaks critics", Salon.com 1 Dec 2010, .
An intellectual challenge to combination prescribers [Was: combo meds'; combo rmeds; SPAM -- combo meds]
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John Harvey
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