Well, I'm not sure I'm wading into the thing you want me to reply on,
but I *think* this is one? I'll try below:
True, he did not advocate substitute a *natural* disease in order to
cure another natural disease. But he *did* use the term "medicinal
disease" in describing the action of a remedy--he described it as the
similar "medicinal disease" displacing the "natural disease", and then
being promptly extinguished by the vital force, leaving health behind
in its place. Are you in agreement with me on that? (I'm not sure yet
if it matters; just trying to go step by step.)
Except that as above.
You mean this? "5. Through his experimentation, provings, and work
throughout the years, Hahnemann harnessed the power contained in often
toxic substances to enable their use for the purpose of cure by
creating stronger, similar, artificial diseases in the organism.
Right, because at that point he's also *certain;* the "hypothesis" has
been re-framed as a "law"--the law of similars. So then he gets busy
developing an arsenal of similars. Am I okay so far?

His earlier experiments, you mean...? The "experiments" Vera mentions
would have been refinements of technique, not part of testing any
theory. (Unless you mean testing theories of method; refining dosage,
potency, etc.)
I'm getting a little confused. You seem to be skipping among different
phases of testing and etc.; but maybe that's not important.
I'm not sure I know what you mean here. Are you saying that he *first*
discovered that illness can be caused by giving a substance which would
(law of similars), and *then* he realized that the same thing can
happen with "natural diseases"? My understanding was that he had made
that observation earlier--that parts of it were well known, e.g. that
schizophrenics tend not to develop severe "acute" diseases, and other
observations. But I'm not sure I remember an "order of events"
explicitly stated--clarify for me?
What hypothesis and law are we at now--still about "like cures like",
or now on to the one about natural diseases, or ?
Right, and my understanding is that initially the trituration and
succussion were done only as a way of further dividing the dose, and
that it was an (?) accidental discovery that these actually increased
the effectiveness of the dose (despite its reduced dosage).
So you're saying that he initially arrived at the law thru observing
medicinal reactions, and only later made connections of the similar
"law of similars" effects of things such as hot water, pressure on a
bump, etc.?
I'm not clear either on how you could know that (most of the examples
he cites were in common usage at the time; what indication is there of
the point at which he connected the two sets of observations?) or why
it matters to the question of definition. Explain more?
in any case, tho, *he* puts the two sets of observations into the same
category, as all being examples of "cure by similar." I don't
understand what's troubling to you about that.
Shannon